Mesorat%20hashas for Gittin 106:16
אלא התם כדקתני טעמא א"ר מאיר מפני מה אני אומר בשבת בשוגג יקיים במזיד יעקר ובשביעית בין בשוגג בין במזיד יעקר מפני שישראל מונין לשביעית
but not for [breaking] a rule of the Torah.<span class="x" onmousemove="('comment',' Breaking the Sabbath. ');"><sup>13</sup></span> But pouring a libation is forbidden by the Torah, and yet he imposes a fine for doing so [innocently]? — This is because of the special seriousness of the sin of idolatry. Between the statements of R. Judah there is no contradiction: where he imposes no fine is for [breaking] a rule of the Rabbis, but for [breaking] a rule of the Torah he imposes a fine.<span class="x" onmousemove="('comment',' Because the offence is more serious. ');"><sup>14</sup></span> But pouring a libation is forbidden by the Torah and he imposes no fine for doing so? — Because of the seriousness of the sin of idolatry people keep clear of it. But even in respect of rules of the Torah one statement of R. Meir was contrasted with another. For it has been taught: 'If a man plants a tree on Sabbath, if inadvertently, he may keep it, but if deliberately, it must be uprooted. If in the Sabbatical year, however, whether he plants it inadvertently or deliberately, it must be uprooted. This is the ruling of R. Meir.<span class="x" onmousemove="('comment',' Which shows that he does impose a fine for breaking a rule of the Torah innocently. ');"><sup>15</sup></span> R. Judah says: In the Sabbatical year, if inadvertently, he may keep it,<span class="x" onmousemove="('comment',' Which shows that R. Judah does not impose a fine for innocently breaking a rule of the Torah, so that he also contradicts himself in the same way as R. Meir. ');"><sup>16</sup></span> but if deliberately he must uproot it: [if planted] on Sabbath, whether inadvertently or deliberately, he must uproot it'! — While you are looking for contradictions,<span class="x" onmousemove="('comment',' Lit., 'on your view'. ');"><sup>17</sup></span> why not point one out in this statement itself? See now: the one [planting on Sabbath] and the other [planting in the Sabbatical year] are both forbidden by the Torah; why then should there be a difference between them? But the reason for that, you must say, is as was taught: Said R. Meir: Why do I say that [if he plants inadvertently] on Sabbath he may keep it and if deliberately he must uproot it, whereas [if he plants] in the Sabbatical year whether inadvertently or deliberately he must uproot it? Because Israel reckon from the Sabbatical year<span class="x" onmousemove="('comment',' E.g., for the years of 'uncircumcision' (v. Lev. XIX, 23ff.) Hence they remember if a tree was planted in the Sabbatical year, and if it were allowed to remain they might take it as a precedent, and so it was necessary to impose a fine in this case. ');"><sup>18</sup></span>
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